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Febrile convulsion — DipIMC MCQ

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ModeratePaediatric and Obstetric EmergenciesFebrile convulsionDipIMC

An 18-month-old has a generalised seizure lasting 2 minutes during a febrile illness. He is now alert, pink and has normal glucose. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: DAssess for serious infection and give safety-netting with conveyance if indicated

Explanation lettering: E = shown as C · C = shown as D · D = shown as E

C is correct: A simple febrile seizure that has stopped needs assessment for the cause of fever and risk features rather than automatic anticonvulsants. A is less suitable because pre-alert is needed when definitive teams must prepare; B is less suitable because it moves the patient before the decisive threat or destination issue is addressed; D is less suitable because it does not address the discriminator in the vignette; E is less suitable because analgesia is important but does not replace the first physiological intervention. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines; Resuscitation Council UK Paediatric and Newborn Guidelines; NICE NG39