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Meningococcal sepsis — DipIMC MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateMedical EmergenciesMeningococcal sepsisDipIMC

A 16-year-old has fever, leg pain, confusion and a non-blanching rash at home. Capillary refill is 5 seconds and blood pressure is falling. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: AGive pre-hospital antibiotics where locally indicated and pre-alert

Explanation lettering: B = shown as A · D = shown as B · A = shown as D

B is correct: Suspected meningococcal sepsis is time-critical and may require pre-hospital antibiotics according to local guidance. A is less suitable because it does not address the discriminator in the vignette; C is less suitable because it does not address the discriminator in the vignette; D is less suitable because it does not address the discriminator in the vignette; E is less suitable because it moves the patient before the decisive threat or destination issue is addressed. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines; Resuscitation Council UK; NICE guidance where applicable