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Sepsis fluid — DipIMC MCQ

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HardMedical EmergenciesSepsis fluidDipIMC

A 74-year-old with suspected sepsis has systolic blood pressure 82 mmHg and no signs of pulmonary oedema. What is the most appropriate drug/dose?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: CIntravenous crystalloid boluses titrated to response

Explanation lettering: E = shown as A · A = shown as C · C = shown as D · D = shown as E

A is correct: Hypotensive sepsis is treated with cautious fluid boluses and reassessment during urgent transfer. B is less suitable because analgesia is important but does not replace the first physiological intervention; C is less suitable because this is not a definitive treatment for the condition described; D is less suitable because antihistamine is adjunctive and must not delay adrenaline in anaphylaxis; E is less suitable because a large initial opioid bolus risks hypotension and respiratory depression. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines; Resuscitation Council UK; NICE guidance where applicable