Eclampsia seizure — DipIMC MCQ
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Correct answer: D — Magnesium sulfate according to local obstetric protocol
Explanation lettering: B = shown as A · D = shown as B · A = shown as C · C = shown as D
C is correct: Eclampsia is treated with magnesium sulfate and urgent obstetric transfer after stabilisation. A is less suitable because antihistamine is adjunctive and must not delay adrenaline in anaphylaxis; B is less suitable because this is not a definitive treatment for the condition described; D is less suitable because it is a common auto-injector dose rather than the adult healthcare dose; E is less suitable because a large initial opioid bolus risks hypotension and respiratory depression. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.
Reference: Resuscitation Council UK Guidelines 2025; JRCALC Guidelines