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Hypoglycaemia no IV — DipIMC MCQ

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EasyMedical EmergenciesHypoglycaemia no IVDipIMC

A 63-year-old diabetic is unconscious with capillary glucose 1.6 mmol/L. Intravenous access has failed twice. What is the most appropriate drug/dose?

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Correct answer: AIntramuscular glucagon 1 mg

A is correct: When severe hypoglycaemia is present and IV access is unavailable, IM glucagon is an appropriate pre-hospital treatment. B is less suitable because cardiac-arrest adrenaline dosing is inappropriate in a perfusing patient; C is less suitable because rapid IV benzodiazepine bolus carries avoidable respiratory risk; D is less suitable because analgesia is important but does not replace the first physiological intervention; E is less suitable because it is a common auto-injector dose rather than the adult healthcare dose. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines; Resuscitation Council UK; NICE guidance where applicable