TXA trauma — DipIMC MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModeratePre-Hospital PharmacologyTXA traumaDipIMC

A 39-year-old has suspected major haemorrhage after pelvic trauma and is within one hour of injury. Intravenous access is present. What is the most appropriate drug/dose?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C — Tranexamic acid 1 g intravenously

Explanation lettering: E = shown as B · B = shown as C · C = shown as E

B is correct: TXA is most beneficial when given early to bleeding trauma patients, commonly 1 g IV according to trauma protocols. A is less suitable because this is not a definitive treatment for the condition described; C is less suitable because analgesia is important but does not replace the first physiological intervention; D is less suitable because the dose is below standard severe adult asthma nebuliser dosing; E is less suitable because a large initial opioid bolus risks hypotension and respiratory depression. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: JRCALC Medicines Guidelines; Resuscitation Council UK; BNF