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Femoral shaft fracture — DipIMC MCQ

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ModeratePre-Hospital Trauma ManagementFemoral shaft fractureDipIMC

A 31-year-old builder has fallen from scaffolding and has an obvious mid-shaft femoral deformity. He is haemodynamically stable after analgesia, with intact distal pulses and no pelvic tenderness. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: B — Apply traction splinting to the injured limb if no contraindication is present

Isolated femoral shaft fractures benefit from traction splinting after analgesia, distal neurovascular assessment and exclusion of contraindications such as pelvic injury. A pelvic binder is for suspected pelvic instability or haemorrhage, not an isolated femoral shaft fracture. Forceful manipulation to anatomical position is unnecessary and potentially harmful. The pearl is that splinting reduces pain, bleeding and secondary soft-tissue injury.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines 2025; ATACC