skip to main content

Non-functioning pituitary adenoma — SCE Endocrinology MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModeratePituitaryNon-functioning pituitary adenomaSCE Endocrinology

A 58-year-old man has recurrent headaches and a pituitary macroadenoma. IGF-1 is normal, prolactin is mildly raised and overnight dexamethasone suppresses cortisol to 30 nmol/L. What is the most likely tumour type?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: DNon-functioning pituitary adenoma

Normal IGF-1, normal cortisol suppression and mild prolactin elevation from stalk effect support a non-functioning macroadenoma. Macroprolactinoma typically causes much higher prolactin, subject to hook effect checks. Functional adenomas should be excluded biochemically before labelling a lesion non-functioning.

Reference: Society for Endocrinology Pituitary Guidance