skip to main content

BPSD non-drug first — DGM MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyDementiaBPSD non-drug firstDGM

An 84-year-old man with moderate dementia becomes agitated during evening personal care. He calms when his daughter explains the routine. There is no pain, infection or immediate risk of harm. Current medicines include donepezil and paracetamol. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A — Identify triggers and use personalised non-pharmacological strategies

Behavioural symptoms should first be managed by identifying triggers, unmet needs and personalised approaches when there is no immediate risk. Immediate long-term antipsychotics, routine sedation, sudden environmental change and abandoning care are suboptimal. BPSD often reflects pain, fear, environment or communication rather than psychiatric disease.

Reference: NICE NG97