Pre-eclampsia — DRCOG MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateAntenatal CarePre-eclampsiaDRCOG

A 31-year-old woman at 36 weeks has new hypertension, ankle swelling, epigastric pain and 3+ proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Pre-eclampsia

Pre-eclampsia is the best answer because the vignette is testing Pre-eclampsia and the recommended approach is consistent with NICE NG133. The other diagnoses do not explain the combination of timing, examination findings and investigation results as well as the correct diagnosis. Specifically, Pelvic inflammatory disease; Placental abruption; Vulvovaginal candidiasis; Physiological neonatal jaundice would be suboptimal in this scenario. The key discriminator is the pattern across symptoms, examination and timing, not a single isolated symptom.

Reference: NICE NG133