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Anovulatory infertility — DRCOG MCQ

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ModerateSubfertilityAnovulatory infertilityDRCOG

A 63-year-old woman has oligomenorrhoea, polycystic ovaries and 18 months of unsuccessful conception. What is the most appropriate management?

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Correct answer: DOffer referral for fertility assessment and ovulation induction discussion

Offer referral for fertility assessment and ovulation induction discussion is the best answer because the vignette is testing Anovulatory infertility and the recommended approach is consistent with NICE CG156. The other options are less suitable because they either delay time-critical assessment, treat a different presentation, or omit the key safety step. Specifically, Book a non-urgent community midwife appointment; Arrange routine review in six weeks; Start topical oestrogen treatment; Repeat the pregnancy test in one week would be suboptimal in this scenario. In DRCOG-style primary care questions, the safest answer is usually the step that matches the acuity and gestation rather than symptomatic treatment alone.

Reference: NICE CG156