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Sepsis — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyEmergency MedicineSepsisUSMLE Step 3

A 77-year-old man from a nursing facility has fever, confusion, cough, and hypotension. Blood pressure is 84/50 mm Hg, lactate is 4.2 mmol/L, and chest radiograph shows a right lower-lobe infiltrate. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: EBegin IV crystalloids and broad-spectrum antibiotics promptly

Sepsis with hypotension and elevated lactate requires prompt resuscitation and empiric antibiotics after cultures when feasible.

Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Guidelines