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Lactational amenorrhea — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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EasyAmbulatory Medicine / Primary CareLactational amenorrheaUSMLE Step 3

A 28-year-old woman is 10 weeks postpartum and exclusively breastfeeding every 3 hours, including overnight. She has not resumed menses and has a negative pregnancy test. She asks why she has not had a period. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's findings?

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Correct answer: CProlactin-mediated suppression of gonadotropin-releasing hormone pulsatility

Frequent breastfeeding increases prolactin, which suppresses GnRH pulsatility and ovulation, causing lactational amenorrhea.

Reference: ACOG postpartum contraception guidance