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Delayed antidepressant response — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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EasyPsychiatry (outpatient management)Delayed antidepressant responseUSMLE Step 3

A 45-year-old woman started escitalopram 10 days ago for major depressive disorder. She has mild nausea that is improving but says her mood has not changed. She has no suicidal ideation, mania, or psychosis. She is taking the medication as prescribed. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's findings?

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Correct answer: A — Therapeutic mood response often requires several weeks

SSRIs often improve adverse effects early, but clinically meaningful antidepressant response commonly requires several weeks.

Reference: APA depression guideline