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Type 2 diabetes with ASCVD — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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ModerateInternal Medicine (chronic management)Type 2 diabetes with ASCVDUSMLE Step 3

A 58-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has A1c 7.4% on metformin. She has hypertension and a prior myocardial infarction. eGFR is 78 mL/min/1.73 m2 and she has no hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Correct answer: AAdd an SGLT2 inhibitor or GLP-1 receptor agonist with cardiovascular benefit

Patients with type 2 diabetes and established ASCVD benefit from glucose-lowering agents with proven cardiovascular benefit when additional therapy is needed.

Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026