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Major depressive disorder — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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EasyPsychiatry (outpatient management)Major depressive disorderUSMLE Step 3

A 38-year-old woman has 8 weeks of low mood, anhedonia, early-morning awakening, low energy, and guilt. She denies mania, psychosis, substance use, and suicidal intent. TSH and CBC are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Correct answer: ABegin an SSRI and arrange follow-up in several weeks

Uncomplicated moderate major depression can be treated with psychotherapy, an SSRI, or both, with close follow-up.

Reference: APA depression treatment guidance