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Opioid use disorder — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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HardPsychiatry (outpatient management)Opioid use disorderUSMLE Step 3

A 24-year-old has pelvic pain, fever, cervical motion tenderness and mucopurulent discharge. Pregnancy test is negative. Ultrasound shows no tubo-ovarian abscess. Gonorrhea and chlamydia NAAT results are pending. What is the best outpatient regimen?

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Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D — Give ceftriaxone, doxycycline and metronidazole while tests are pending

This meets clinical criteria for empiric pelvic inflammatory disease treatment. B and D defer treatment, C targets a different syndrome, and E lacks required polymicrobial coverage.

Reference: CDC, Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines: https://www.cdc.gov/std/treatment-guidelines/default.htm