skip to main content

Acute ischemic stroke — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateEmergency MedicineAcute ischemic strokeUSMLE Step 3

A 70-year-old woman develops sudden aphasia and right arm weakness 90 minutes before ED arrival. CT head shows no hemorrhage. Blood pressure is 172/94 mm Hg, glucose is 108 mg/dL, and she takes no anticoagulants. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D — Administer intravenous thrombolytic therapy if no contraindications are present

Eligible patients with disabling acute ischemic stroke within the treatment window should receive thrombolytic therapy after hemorrhage is excluded.

Reference: AHA/ASA acute ischemic stroke guideline: https://www.stroke.org/