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Sepsis — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateEmergency MedicineSepsisUSMLE Step 3

A 73-year-old woman presents with fever, confusion, cough, and hypotension. Blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg after initial triage, lactate is 4.1 mmol/L, and chest radiograph shows right lower lobe infiltrate. Oxygen saturation is 91%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: AGive intravenous crystalloid and broad-spectrum antibiotics promptly

Sepsis with hypotension and elevated lactate requires prompt fluids, antibiotics, cultures when feasible, and source evaluation.

Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign guideline: https://www.sccm.org/