A 71-year-old woman had 20 minutes of right-sided weakness that resolved before arrival. She has atrial fibrillation and hypertension. CT head shows

Question

A 71-year-old woman had 20 minutes of right-sided weakness that resolved before arrival. She has atrial fibrillation and hypertension. CT head shows no hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Arrange urgent stroke evaluation and secondary prevention

Answer

Schedule neurology follow-up in 1 year

Answer

Reassure because symptoms resolved

Answer

Use antibiotics for presumed infection

Answer

Start thrombolysis after resolution

Transient ischemic attack disposition — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 71-year-old woman had 20 minutes of right-sided weakness that resolved before arrival. She has atrial fibrillation and hypertension. CT head shows no hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?