A 35-year-old woman with PTSD after sexual assault has nightmares and avoidance. She has no psychosis or mania and prefers structured therapy. Which

Question

A 35-year-old woman with PTSD after sexual assault has nightmares and avoidance. She has no psychosis or mania and prefers structured therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Offer trauma-focused psychotherapy

Answer

Use benzodiazepines as first-line chronic therapy

Answer

Recommend exposure to trauma reminders without support

Answer

Start antipsychotic medication as first-line therapy

Answer

Avoid discussing treatment choices

PTSD treatment — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 35-year-old woman with PTSD after sexual assault has nightmares and avoidance. She has no psychosis or mania and prefers structured therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?