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Bipolar depression treatment — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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ModeratePsychiatry (outpatient management)Bipolar depression treatmentUSMLE Step 3

A 29-year-old woman with known bipolar I disorder has a depressive episode. She takes no mood stabilizer. She denies psychosis and suicidal intent. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: DStart a mood stabilizer or approved bipolar depression treatment

Antidepressant monotherapy can precipitate mania in bipolar I disorder; mood-stabilizing treatment is required.

Reference: APA practice guidance for depressive, anxiety, bipolar, and substance-use disorders