A 22-year-old nonpregnant woman has dysuria and postcoital spotting. Nucleic acid amplification testing is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis and

Question

A 22-year-old nonpregnant woman has dysuria and postcoital spotting. Nucleic acid amplification testing is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis and negative for gonorrhea. She has no pelvic pain or fever. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Treat with doxycycline and arrange partner treatment

Answer

Treat with metronidazole alone

Answer

Delay treatment until culture confirmation

Answer

Treat with fluconazole

Answer

Schedule hysteroscopy before antibiotics

Chlamydia infection — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 22-year-old nonpregnant woman has dysuria and postcoital spotting. Nucleic acid amplification testing is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis and negative for gonorrhea. She has no pelvic pain or fever. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?