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HIV prevention — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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ModerateAmbulatory Medicine / Primary CareHIV preventionUSMLE Step 3

A 27-year-old man has sex with men and was treated twice for rectal gonorrhea in the past year. HIV antigen-antibody testing is negative, creatinine is normal, and hepatitis B serologies show immunity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: CPrescribe HIV preexposure prophylaxis

Persons at substantial risk of HIV acquisition should be offered effective preexposure prophylaxis after confirming negative HIV status.

Reference: USPSTF A and B Recommendations, current online summary