skip to main content

Type 2 diabetes — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateAmbulatory Medicine / Primary CareType 2 diabetesUSMLE Step 3

A 58-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has an A1c of 8.6% despite metformin. She has a prior myocardial infarction and an eGFR of 76 mL/min/1.73 m2. BMI is 34 kg/m2. She has no hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: EStart a GLP-1 receptor agonist with cardiovascular benefit

In type 2 diabetes with established ASCVD, a GLP-1 receptor agonist with proven cardiovascular benefit is preferred as add-on therapy.

Reference: American Diabetes Association Standards of Care in Diabetes—2026