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Opioid use disorder — USMLE Step 2 CK MCQ

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EasyPsychiatryOpioid use disorderUSMLE Step 2 CK

A 49-year-old African American man comes to the emergency department because of changes in mood, behavior, or thinking. History and focused examination are notable for heroin use, cravings, withdrawal, and unsuccessful attempts to stop. Temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination confirms the key finding and shows no unrelated abnormality that would better explain the presentation. There is no evidence of intoxication, delirium, or a primary neurologic disorder unless described in the vignette. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Correct answer: A — Buprenorphine therapy

The vignette describes Opioid use disorder, supported by heroin use, cravings, withdrawal, and unsuccessful attempts to stop. Buprenorphine therapy is the single best answer because it matches the diagnostic or management priority in this clinical setting. The other choices are plausible alternatives in related presentations, but they do not best fit the timing, findings, and guideline-directed approach described here.

Reference: ASAM National Practice Guideline for Opioid Use Disorder