skip to main content

Pelvic inflammatory disease — USMLE Step 2 CK MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateObstetrics & GynecologyPelvic inflammatory diseaseUSMLE Step 2 CK

A 31-year-old Hispanic woman comes to the clinic because of pelvic symptoms or pregnancy-related concerns. History and focused examination are notable for lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, fever, and mucopurulent discharge. Temperature is 102.2°F (39.0°C), blood pressure is 108/66 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Physical examination confirms the key finding and shows no unrelated abnormality that would better explain the presentation. Focused laboratory studies and initial testing support the clinical pattern described in the stem. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: CPelvic inflammatory disease

The vignette describes Pelvic inflammatory disease, supported by lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, fever, and mucopurulent discharge. Pelvic inflammatory disease is the single best answer because it matches the diagnostic or management priority in this clinical setting. The other choices are plausible alternatives in related presentations, but they do not best fit the timing, findings, and guideline-directed approach described here.

Reference: CDC STI Treatment Guidelines 2021