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Pelvic inflammatory disease — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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ModerateOB/GYN (prenatal care, contraception, screening)Pelvic inflammatory diseaseUSMLE Step 3

A 21-year-old woman has lower abdominal pain, mucopurulent cervical discharge, cervical motion tenderness, and adnexal tenderness. Pregnancy test is negative. She is afebrile and tolerating oral intake. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: ATreat as outpatient with ceftriaxone, doxycycline, and metronidazole

Mild to moderate PID is treated empirically with broad coverage for gonorrhea, chlamydia, and anaerobes.

Reference: CDC STI Treatment Guidelines