A 58-year-old woman started empagliflozin 2 months ago for type 2 diabetes. She now has vulvar pruritus and thick white discharge. Urinalysis shows

Question

A 58-year-old woman started empagliflozin 2 months ago for type 2 diabetes. She now has vulvar pruritus and thick white discharge. Urinalysis shows glucosuria without pyuria. A1c has improved. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's findings?

Accepted Answer

Genital mycotic infection related to SGLT2 inhibitor therapy

Answer

Cervical cancer

Answer

Bacterial vaginosis caused by metformin

Answer

Acute pyelonephritis

Answer

Pelvic inflammatory disease from insulin

SGLT2 adverse effect — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 58-year-old woman started empagliflozin 2 months ago for type 2 diabetes. She now has vulvar pruritus and thick white discharge. Urinalysis shows glucosuria without pyuria. A1c has improved. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's findings?