A 62-year-old man has fatigue. Hemoglobin is 10.5 g/dL, MCV is 72 fL, ferritin is 8 ng/mL, and fecal occult blood testing is positive. He takes no

Question

A 62-year-old man has fatigue. Hemoglobin is 10.5 g/dL, MCV is 72 fL, ferritin is 8 ng/mL, and fecal occult blood testing is positive. He takes no NSAIDs and has no visible bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Perform bidirectional endoscopy

Answer

Schedule splenectomy

Answer

Treat empirically for hemorrhoids

Answer

Order hemoglobin electrophoresis as the next test

Answer

Start iron and stop evaluation if hemoglobin rises

Iron deficiency anemia — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 62-year-old man has fatigue. Hemoglobin is 10.5 g/dL, MCV is 72 fL, ferritin is 8 ng/mL, and fecal occult blood testing is positive. He takes no NSAIDs and has no visible bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?