A 28-year-old man is newly diagnosed with HIV. CD4 count is 520/mm3 and viral load is 75,000 copies/mL. He has no opportunistic infection symptoms.

Question

A 28-year-old man is newly diagnosed with HIV. CD4 count is 520/mm3 and viral load is 75,000 copies/mL. He has no opportunistic infection symptoms. Genotype testing has been sent and he wants treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Begin antiretroviral therapy promptly

Answer

Wait until CD4 count falls below 200/mm3

Answer

Treat with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole alone

Answer

Delay treatment until symptoms occur

Answer

Start antiretroviral monotherapy

HIV initial treatment — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 28-year-old man is newly diagnosed with HIV. CD4 count is 520/mm3 and viral load is 75,000 copies/mL. He has no opportunistic infection symptoms. Genotype testing has been sent and he wants treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?