A 71-year-old man with diabetes has 2 weeks of rest pain and a nonhealing toe ulcer. The foot is cool with absent pedal pulses. Ankle-brachial index

Question

A 71-year-old man with diabetes has 2 weeks of rest pain and a nonhealing toe ulcer. The foot is cool with absent pedal pulses. Ankle-brachial index is 0.34 and there is no fever. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Urgent vascular surgery evaluation for revascularization

Answer

Compression stockings as primary therapy

Answer

Topical steroid cream

Answer

Routine follow-up in 1 year

Answer

High-dose anticoagulation without vascular assessment

Critical limb ischemia — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 71-year-old man with diabetes has 2 weeks of rest pain and a nonhealing toe ulcer. The foot is cool with absent pedal pulses. Ankle-brachial index is 0.34 and there is no fever. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?