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Gestational hypertension term — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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HardOB/GYN (Prenatal / Contraception / Screening)Gestational hypertension termUSMLE Step 3

A 33-year-old gravida 2 para 1 at 38 weeks has blood pressure 150/94 mm Hg twice 4 hours apart. She has no headache, visual symptoms, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, or elevated creatinine. Fetal testing is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: ARecommend delivery

Gestational hypertension at term is generally managed with delivery to reduce maternal risk.

Reference: ACOG clinical guidance, https://www.acog.org/clinical