A 62-year-old man has predictable substernal pressure after walking uphill that resolves with rest. Resting ECG is normal. He has hypertension and

Question

A 62-year-old man has predictable substernal pressure after walking uphill that resolves with rest. Resting ECG is normal. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Symptoms occur twice weekly and there is no rest pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Start antianginal therapy and assess with stress testing

Answer

Treat with antibiotics for myocarditis

Answer

Start thrombolysis immediately

Answer

Discharge with no cardiac evaluation

Answer

Order emergent coronary bypass surgery

Stable angina — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 62-year-old man has predictable substernal pressure after walking uphill that resolves with rest. Resting ECG is normal. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Symptoms occur twice weekly and there is no rest pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?