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SGLT2 inhibitor mechanism — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

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EasyInternal Medicine (chronic management)SGLT2 inhibitor mechanismUSMLE Step 3

A 58-year-old man with diabetes starts empagliflozin. Three months later A1c improves and he has lost 6 lb. He reports increased urination. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's findings?

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Correct answer: CIncreased urinary glucose excretion in the proximal tubule

SGLT2 inhibitors block proximal tubular glucose reabsorption, causing glycosuria, osmotic diuresis, and modest weight loss.

Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026