A 35-year-old woman has secondary amenorrhea for 5 months. Pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin is 82 ng/mL, TSH is normal, and she has

Question

A 35-year-old woman has secondary amenorrhea for 5 months. Pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin is 82 ng/mL, TSH is normal, and she has galactorrhea. She takes no antipsychotics. Which of the following is the most appropriate at this time?

Accepted Answer

MRI of the pituitary

Answer

Reassure that galactorrhea is normal

Answer

Begin combined oral contraceptives without further evaluation

Answer

Start methimazole

Answer

Perform hysteroscopy first

Hyperprolactinemia — USMLE Step 3 MCQ

A 35-year-old woman has secondary amenorrhea for 5 months. Pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin is 82 ng/mL, TSH is normal, and she has galactorrhea. She takes no antipsychotics. Which of the following is the most appropriate at this time?