Neutropenic fever — ABIM Board MCQ
Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.
Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.
Reveal the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A — Plasma exchange, glucocorticoids, and caplacizumab
The best answer is “Plasma exchange, glucocorticoids, and caplacizumab”. The clinical syndrome and high pretest probability indicate immune TTP, which is fatal if treatment waits for ADAMTS13 confirmation. Plasma exchange and immunosuppression begin immediately, and caplacizumab reduces early microvascular thrombosis while the autoimmune process is controlled. Platelets are avoided unless life-threatening bleeding requires them.
Reference: ASH ISTH Guidelines for Treatment of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura: https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC8091490/