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Septic arthritis — ABFM Board MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardMusculoskeletal/Sports medicineSeptic arthritisABFM Board

A 58-year-old man with diabetes presents with acute severe knee pain, swelling, and fever. The knee is warm with limited range of motion. No trauma is reported. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: BUrgent arthrocentesis before antibiotics if feasible

Acute monoarthritis with fever requires urgent joint aspiration to evaluate for septic arthritis.

Reference: American Family Physician clinical reviews and AAFP guidance: https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp.html