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Diabetes with ASCVD — ABFM Board MCQ

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ModerateEndocrine/MetabolicDiabetes with ASCVDABFM Board

A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and prior myocardial infarction has an A1c of 8.2% while taking metformin. eGFR is 70 mL/min/1.73 m2. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: C — Add a GLP-1 receptor agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor with cardiovascular benefit

In type 2 diabetes with established cardiovascular disease, agents with proven cardiovascular benefit should be considered independent of glucose lowering needs.

Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026: https://professional.diabetes.org/standards-of-care