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Diverticulitis — ABFM Board MCQ

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ModerateGI/HepatologyDiverticulitisABFM Board

A 57-year-old man has 2 days of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and low-grade fever. Examination shows localized tenderness without peritonitis. He is tolerating oral intake and has no immunosuppression. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: C — Outpatient management with clear return precautions

Uncomplicated mild diverticulitis in a stable, immunocompetent patient can often be managed as an outpatient with careful follow-up.

Reference: American Family Physician clinical reviews and AAFP guidance: https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp.html