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Nephrolithiasis — ABFM Board MCQ

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ModerateUrology/RenalNephrolithiasisABFM Board

A 42-year-old man has sudden severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin with microscopic hematuria. He is afebrile and has no urinary retention. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

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Correct answer: D — Noncontrast CT abdomen and pelvis if diagnosis is uncertain

Renal colic causes flank-to-groin pain with hematuria; noncontrast CT is highly sensitive when imaging is needed.

Reference: American Family Physician clinical reviews and AAFP guidance: https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp.html