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Cellulitis — ABFM Board MCQ

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EasyDermatologyCellulitisABFM Board

A 53-year-old man has a warm, tender, expanding erythematous area on the lower leg after a skin scrape. There is no abscess, purulence, or systemic toxicity. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

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Correct answer: DOral cephalexin

Nonpurulent cellulitis is usually streptococcal and can be treated with an oral beta-lactam when outpatient criteria are met.

Reference: American Family Physician clinical reviews and AAFP guidance: https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp.html