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Transient ischemic attack — ABFM Board MCQ

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ModerateNeurologyTransient ischemic attackABFM Board

A 67-year-old man had sudden right arm weakness and aphasia that resolved after 20 minutes. He has hypertension and diabetes. Examination is now normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: EUrgent stroke evaluation and secondary prevention workup

Transient neurologic deficits concerning for TIA require urgent evaluation because early stroke risk is high.

Reference: American Family Physician clinical reviews and AAFP guidance: https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp.html