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Scaphoid fracture — ABEM Board MCQ

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EasyTraumaScaphoid fractureABEM Board

A 21-year-old man arrives after falling on an outstretched hand. Triage acuity is ESI 4; BP 126/72 mm Hg, HR 78/min. Wrist radiographs are negative, but he has anatomic snuffbox tenderness and pain with axial thumb compression. Neurovascular exam is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: B — Immobilize in a thumb spica splint and arrange repeat imaging or follow-up

Clinical suspicion for occult scaphoid fracture warrants thumb spica immobilization and repeat evaluation despite negative initial radiographs.

Reference: ACEP orthopedic emergency guidance