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Primary progressive aphasia nonfluent variant — SCE Neurology MCQ

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ModerateCognitive NeurologyPrimary progressive aphasia nonfluent variantSCE Neurology

A 63-year-old man presented with effortful halting speech and apraxia of speech over two years. On examination, single-word comprehension was relatively preserved. Initial investigations showed: MRI showed left inferior frontal and insular atrophy. What is the most appropriate management?

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Correct answer: CSubtype-specific dementia care with medication and safety review

Subtype-specific dementia care with medication and safety review is the best answer because the vignette describes Primary progressive aphasia nonfluent variant: agrammatic effortful speech localises to nonfluent PPA. Urgent reperfusion assessment with thrombolysis or thrombectomy pathway is plausible in a neighbouring presentation, but the chronology, examination or investigation pattern does not match the key discriminator here. High-dose intravenous methylprednisolone after excluding infection and Intravenous aciclovir pending diagnostic confirmation are less appropriate because they would require different localisation, timing or test findings; Anticoagulation after excluding contraindications would fit a different syndrome. Clinical pearl: semantic variant has impaired single-word comprehension and anterior temporal atrophy.

Reference: NICE NG97; consensus criteria for dementia syndromes