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Hypnic headache — SCE Neurology MCQ

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HardHeadacheHypnic headacheSCE Neurology

A 72-year-old is awakened at nearly the same time on most nights by a bilateral dull headache lasting 40 minutes. Examination, blood pressure, MRI and inflammatory markers are normal, and there are no autonomic features. Which diagnosis is most likely?

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Correct answer: BHypnic headache

The best answer is “Hypnic headache”. Hypnic headache begins after age 50, occurs only during sleep, wakes the patient and lasts 15 minutes to four hours without cranial autonomic signs; secondary nocturnal causes must first be excluded. “Cluster headache” is less appropriate because cluster headache is usually severe, unilateral and accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic signs or restlessness “Giant-cell arteritis” is less appropriate because GCA needs supporting systemic, vascular or inflammatory features and urgent evaluation “Raised-intracranial-pressure headache” is less appropriate because raised pressure commonly brings papilloedema or other red flags and is not clock-like sleep-only headache by definition “Medication-overuse headache” is less appropriate because medication overuse produces frequent headache linked to acute-drug exposure rather than this specific circadian pattern

Reference: International Classification of Headache Disorders: Hypnic headache. https://ichd-3.org/4-other-primary-headache-disorders/4-9-hypnic-headache/