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Abnormal semen analysis — DRCOG MCQ

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ModerateSubfertilityAbnormal semen analysisDRCOG

A 35-year-old man has a semen analysis showing low sperm concentration during fertility assessment. His partner's initial tests are normal. He had a febrile illness 4 weeks before the sample. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: D — Repeat semen analysis after an appropriate interval

Semen parameters vary and can be affected by recent fever, so abnormal results should be repeated after an appropriate interval before concluding persistent male factor. One sample is insufficient to diagnose permanent sterility. Testosterone therapy can suppress spermatogenesis. Male factor infertility is common and should not be ignored.

Reference: NICE CG156