A non-pregnant 22-year-old has uncomplicated genital chlamydia. She has no PID symptoms or allergy, but says a previous azithromycin dose caused

Question

A non-pregnant 22-year-old has uncomplicated genital chlamydia. She has no PID symptoms or allergy, but says a previous azithromycin dose caused nausea and asks for it again because it is shorter. Which plan best follows current UK guidance?

Accepted Answer

Treat with first-line doxycycline and arrange abstinence advice and partner management

Answer

Use ceftriaxone with doxycycline because asymptomatic infection may include occult gonorrhoea

Answer

Use ceftriaxone alone because it covers uncomplicated chlamydia and gonorrhoea equally

Answer

Use doxycycline but omit partner management if symptoms remain absent

Answer

Use azithromycin 1 g once because shorter treatment is preferred whenever adherence is uncertain

Chlamydia infection — DRCOG MCQ

A non-pregnant 22-year-old has uncomplicated genital chlamydia. She has no PID symptoms or allergy, but says a previous azithromycin dose caused nausea and asks for it again because it is shorter. Which plan best follows current UK guidance?