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Gonorrhoea — DRCOG MCQ

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ModerateContraceptionGonorrhoeaDRCOG

A 20-year-old woman has purulent cervical discharge and a NAAT positive for gonorrhoea. She has no pelvic tenderness and is not pregnant. Local sexual health service is available. What is the most appropriate management?

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Correct answer: A — Refer or treat according to sexual health guidance with ceftriaxone and partner notification

Gonorrhoea requires appropriate antibiotic therapy, commonly ceftriaxone-based depending on current guidance and sensitivities, plus partner notification and test-of-cure arrangements. Fluconazole treats candidiasis, not gonorrhoea. Doxycycline alone is inadequate for gonorrhoea. Delaying treatment increases transmission and complications.

Reference: BASHH gonorrhoea guideline; NICE CKS gonorrhoea