skip to main content

Dexamethasone PONV — FRCA Primary MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModeratePharmacologyDexamethasone PONVFRCA Primary

A high-risk patient receives an antiemetic at induction and later has transient postoperative hyperglycaemia. Which drug is most likely?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Dexamethasone

Dexamethasone reduces postoperative nausea and vomiting but may cause transient perioperative hyperglycaemia. Thiopental is less appropriate because it would fit a different clinical clue or a separate anaesthetic problem. Atropine is less appropriate because it would fit a different clinical clue or a separate anaesthetic problem. Mannitol is less appropriate because it would fit a different clinical clue or a separate anaesthetic problem. Phenylephrine is less appropriate because it would fit a different clinical clue or a separate anaesthetic problem. In Primary FRCA pharmacology, link the clinical effect to the receptor, distribution or elimination mechanism rather than memorising isolated facts.

Reference: Peck, Hill & Williams Pharmacology for Anaesthesia and Intensive Care; BNF; Primary FRCA textbooks